what does the Bible mean by Synagogue of Satan in Revelation 3:9?
I've tried to cut down some of it into chunks without losing the reasoning as to why it points to whom it points. I think he won't mind (mea culpa if not)-
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How we identify to which community this points is through the mention of "ten days" "that ye may be tried."
For such a trial period to be mentioned in this context it must be severe, as no other community has a tribulation period mentioned. The only one that has a very clear prophetic period of "ten days" or ten actual years of the most dire persecution comes under Diocletian in the 4th century. Here a very clear 10 year reign of terror is to be found.
Along with that mention of a tribulation is a mention of the "synagogue of Satan" and people "claiming to be Judeans" but "they are not." The language used refers to faithful believers in Christ as "Judeans," which makes sense from John's perspective being a "Judean" himself. The timing of the persecution is critical in determining who these false Judeans were.
It is mentioned before the persecution, which comes before Christianity becomes the official religion of Rome (303-313AD). So it can't (or doesn't seem) refer to those Romans who pretended to be Christians (after 323AD), but still were clinging to pagan customs, gods, and practices. It must instead refer to those who, like their predecessors, condemned Christ, and hunted his followers down far and wide."
"... We have to look at the words of Jesus referring to Satan and the devil for greatest clarity..."
He lists
Matthew 16 and 23 (child of hell), Mark 4, John 8 (murderer, father of lies),
"....Jesus is equating the desires and acts of Satan with those who emulate them. Because of their actions they are called sons or children of the devil. The devil in these verses snatches the Word of truth from them, whether that word is a commandment, a good work, some bit of wisdom, or anything that gives glory to God or reveals His existence to them."
He goes into the evidence of this and follows it up with-
"..... they used the secular authorities against Christians. When it is said that Diocletian surrounded himself with those who hated Christians, it should be readily apparent to whom that refers."
Then he goes on to talk about the Herodian Dynasty being one of mixed Judean, Roman, and Edomite lineage.... Herod being someone that was also clearly not considered "Judean" by John the Baptist or anyone considered a follower of Christ in the New Testament. More of a "false Judean"
If you didn't really want an answer, lol, sorry