you have here in all honesty MounatineerWV a greater argument for this, however as was previously pointed out the Mesopotamian influence which animated this law was indeed post Exodus.
However, Mosaic Law had not reached these people and they did indeed develop their own sense of morality without it.
some comparisons and contrasts:
http://evangelcs.org/news/2012/the-code-of-hammurabi-vs-the-law-of-moses/
https://www.gotquestions.org/Moses-Hammurabi-code.html
Excerpts (so you know I read it all)
"There is a dramatic difference in perspective between Hammurabi and Moses. One’s focus is horizontal, while the other’s is vertical. Archaeologist Alfred Hoerth, author of
Archaeology and the Old Testament, says, “The Old Testament law code is religiously oriented, while others are civil. The Mesopotamians believed the god Shamash gave Hammurabi his law code so people could get along with one another. In the Bible, the law code was given primarily so people could get along with God".
(more)
"The theory that Moses’ Law is simply a rewording of Hammurabi’s has largely been abandoned today, due to the fact that similar law codes, even older than Hammurabi’s, have been found in various other places. These would include the Cuneiform laws, written as early as 2350 B.C.; the Code of Urukagina, 2380 B.C.; the Code of Ur-Nammu, 2050 B.C.; and others."