Intentional Fouls Question

msudawg05

Redshirt
Oct 12, 2009
254
12
18
Basically all fouls at the end of the half and end of the game are intentional to stop the clock and give a team a chance. So why aren’t those ever called intentional? And what made our foul at the end of the first half be upgraded to an intentional foul? He shouldn’t have fouled to begin with, so not trying to give him a pass. I’ve always wondered about this.
 

FlotownDawg

All-American
Aug 30, 2012
6,249
6,070
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There’s no such thing as an “intentional foul” anymore. It’s a flagrant one or a flagrant two. A flagrant two is something like a punch or just trucking a guy intentionally and is an automatic ejection. Flagrant one is usually something like hitting a guy in the face, even if it’s accidental.
 

msudawg05

Redshirt
Oct 12, 2009
254
12
18
Fair enough. But what about when there were intentional fouls called in games. Why were the ones at the end of a game never called that even when it was obvious that they were?
 
Jan 23, 2007
2,427
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Fair enough. But what about when there were intentional fouls called in games. Why were the ones at the end of a game never called that even when it was obvious that they were?
The rule was always interpreted “intentional foul for the purpose of preventing a scoring play.” Bear-hugging a guy going for a dunk, grabbing a guy intentionally to prevent a fast break. Things like that.