dogmess said:
this type of behavior is not a part of intercollegiate athletics.”[in the future?]
In others words, he's admitting this is some kind of loophole that needs to be fixed.Perhaps by adding the phrase, "ineligible regardless of the knowledge of the student?"
The NCAA and the SEC by law mentions nothing about the student knowing or not knowing. If they wanted to add that in there then they should have and if they just neglected to add that then that should be their problem. The fact of the matter is is that laws and by laws should be ruling on their exact wording without offering the authors the opportunity to re-interpret or re-define at will what something "really" means or should have meant.
The Ncaa has already found that there was a solicitation which implicity declares your agreeability to said proposal/offer. So please tell me why this isnt "receives or agrees to receive"? The SEC's response was:
<font size="2">“SEC Bylaw 14.01.3.2 does not apply in this situation,”
SEC spokesman Charles Bloom said in an e-mail to The Clarion-Ledger. “It
only applies when there is an actual payment of an improper benefit, or
an <span style="font-weight: bold;">agreement (such as a handshake agreement) to pay and receive an
improper benefit</span>. The facts in this case, as we understand them, are
that the student-athlete’s father, without the knowledge of the
student-athlete, solicited improper payments (which were rejected) from
an institution the young man did not attend, and that the institution
where the young man is enrolled was not involved.”</font>
The by law says NOTHING in the by law about any agreement. It doesnt says , "receives or agrees to receive with a verbal agreement, physical handshake, signed letter of intent or wireless payments and only if the student-athlete is aware of said agreement". it says "receives or agrees to receive". Anytime you solicit someone you implicitly agree to receive it by its very definition. And solicitation has been found to have happened.